This page was exported from IT Certification Exam Braindumps [ http://blog.braindumpsit.com ] Export date:Sat Apr 12 12:51:12 2025 / +0000 GMT ___________________________________________________ Title: [Q22-Q45] Try 100% Updated 212-82 Exam Questions [2023] --------------------------------------------------- Try 100% Updated 212-82 Exam Questions [2023] Pass 212-82 Exam - Real Questions and Answers Q22. Omar, an encryption specialist in an organization, was tasked with protecting low-complexity applications such as RFID tags, sensor-based applications, and other IbT-based applications. For this purpose, he employed an algorithm for all lower-powered devices that used less power and resources without compromising device security.identify the algorithm employed by Omar in this scenario.  Quantum cryptography  Elliptic curve cryptography  Lightweight cryptography  Homomorphic encryption Lightweight cryptography is an algorithm that is designed for low-complexity applications such as RFID tags, sensor-based applications, and other IoT-based applications. Lightweight cryptography uses less power and resources without compromising device security. Lightweight cryptography can be implemented using symmetric-key algorithms, asymmetric-key algorithms, or hash functions1.Q23. A pfSense firewall has been configured to block a web application www.abchacker.com. Perform an analysis on the rules set by the admin and select the protocol which has been used to apply the rule.Hint: Firewall login credentials are given below:Username: adminPassword: admin@l23  POP3  TCP/UDP  FTP  ARP Q24. A company decided to implement the cloud infrastructure within its corporate firewall 10 secure sensitive data from external access. The company invested heavily in creating a cloud architecture within its premises to manage full control over its corporate dat a. Which of the following types of cloud deployment models did the company implement in this scenario?  Multi cloud  Public cloud  Private cloud  Community cloud Private cloud is the type of cloud deployment model that the company implemented in this scenario. Cloud computing is a model that provides on-demand access to shared and scalable computing resources, such as servers, storage, networks, applications, etc., over the internet or a network. Cloud computing can have different types based on its service or deployment model. A cloud deployment model defines how and where the cloud infrastructure and services are hosted and accessed . A cloud deployment model can have different types, such as public cloud, private cloud, hybrid cloud, community cloud, etc. A private cloud is a type of cloud deployment model that provides exclusive access to cloud infrastructure and services to a single organization or entity . A private cloud can be hosted within or outside the organization’s premises and managed by the organization or a third-party provider . A private cloud can be used to secure sensitive data from external access and maintain full control over the corporate data . In the scenario, the company decided to implement the cloud infrastructure within its corporate firewall to secure sensitive data from external access. The company invested heavily in creating a cloud architecture within its premises to manage full control over its corporate data. This means that the company implemented a private cloud for this purpose. A multi-cloud is not a type of cloud deployment model, but a term that describes a strategy that uses multiple public or private clouds from different providers for different purposes or functions . A public cloud is a type of cloud deployment model that provides open access to cloud infrastructure and services to multiple organizations or entities over the internet . A public cloud can be hosted and managed by a third-party provider that owns and operates the cloud infrastructure and services . A community cloud is a type of cloud deployment model that provides shared access to cloud infrastructure and services to multiple organizations or entities that have common interests or goalsQ25. Brielle. a security professional, was instructed to secure her organization’s network from malicious activities. To achieve this, she started monitoring network activities on a control system that collected event data from various sources. During this process. Brielle observed that a malicious actor had logged in to access a network device connected to the organizational network. Which of the following types of events did Brielle identify in the above scenario?  Failure audit  Error  Success audit  Warning Success audit is the type of event that Brielle identified in the above scenario. Success audit is a type of event that records successful attempts to access a network device or resource. Success audit can be used to monitor authorized activities on a network, but it can also indicate unauthorized activities by malicious actors who have compromised credentials or bypassed security controls4.Q26. A software company develops new software products by following the best practices for secure application development. Dawson, a software analyst, is responsible for checking the performance of applications in the client’s network to determine any issue faced by end users while accessing the application.Which of the following tiers of the secure application development lifecycle involves checking the application performance?  Development  Staging  Testing  Quality assurance (QA) Testing is the tier of the secure application development lifecycle that involves checking the application performance in the above scenario. Secure application development is a process that involves designing, developing, deploying, and maintaining software applications that are secure and resilient to threats and attacks. Secure application development can be based on various models or frameworks, such as SDLC (Software Development Life Cycle), OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project), etc. Secure application development consists of various tiers or stages that perform different tasks or roles. Testing is a tier of the secure application development lifecycle that involves verifying and validating the functionality and security of software applications before releasing them to end users. Testing can include various types of tests, such as unit testing, integration testing, system testing, performance testing, security testing, etc. Testing can be used to check the application performance and identify any errors, bugs, or vulnerabilities in the software applications. In the scenario, a software company develops new software products by following the best practices for secure application development. Dawson, a software analyst, is responsible for checking the performance of applications in the client’s network to determine any issue faced by end users while accessing the application. This means that he performs testing for this purpose. Development is a tier of the secure application development lifecycle that involves creating and coding software applications according to the design and specifications. Staging is a tier of the secure application development lifecycle that involves deploying software applications to a simulated or pre-production environment for testing or evaluation purposes. Quality assurance (QA) is a tier of the secure application development lifecycle that involves ensuring that software applications meet the quality standards and expectations of end users and stakeholdersQ27. in a security incident, the forensic investigation has isolated a suspicious file named “security_update.exe”. You are asked to analyze the file in the Documents folder of the “Attacker Machine-1” to determine whether it is malicious. Analyze the suspicious file and identify the malware signature. (Practical Question)  Stuxnet  KLEZ  ZEUS  Conficker Stuxnet is the malware signature of the suspicious file in the above scenario. Malware is malicious software that can harm or compromise the security or functionality of a system or network. Malware can include various types, such as viruses, worms, trojans, ransomware, spyware, etc. Malware signature is a unique pattern or characteristic that identifies a specific malware or malware family. Malware signature can be used to detect or analyze malware by comparing it with known malware signatures in databases or repositories. To analyze the suspicious file and identify the malware signature, one has to follow these steps:Navigate to Documents folder of Attacker Machine-1.Right-click on security_update.exe file and select Scan with VirusTotal option.Wait for VirusTotal to scan the file and display the results.Observe the detection ratio and details.The detection ratio is 59/70, which means that 59 out of 70 antivirus engines detected the file as malicious. The details show that most antivirus engines detected the file as Stuxnet, which is a malware signature of a worm that targets industrial control systems (ICS). Stuxnet can be used to sabotage or damage ICS by modifying their code or behavior. Therefore, Stuxnet is the malware signature of the suspicious file. KLEZ is a malware signature of a worm that spreads via email and network shares. KLEZ can be used to infect or overwrite files, disable antivirus software, or display fake messages. ZEUS is a malware signature of a trojan that targets banking and financial systems. ZEUS can be used to steal or modify banking credentials, perform fraudulent transactions, or install other malware. Conficker is a malware signature of a worm that exploits a vulnerability in Windows operating systems. Conficker can be used to create a botnet, disable security services, or download other malwareQ28. Kason, a forensic officer, was appointed to investigate a case where a threat actor has bullied certain children online. Before proceeding legally with the case, Kason has documented all the supporting documents, including source of the evidence and its relevance to the case, before presenting it in front of the jury.Which of the following rules of evidence was discussed in the above scenario?  Authentic  Understandable  Reliable  Admissible Admissible is the rule of evidence discussed in the above scenario. A rule of evidence is a criterion or principle that determines whether a piece of evidence can be used in a legal proceeding or investigation. Admissible is a rule of evidence that states that the evidence must be relevant, reliable, authentic, and understandable to be accepted by a court or a jury . Admissible also means that the evidence must be obtained legally and ethically, without violating any laws or rights. In the scenario, Kason has documented all the supporting documents, including source of the evidence and its relevance to the case, before presenting it in front of the jury, which means that he has followed the admissible rule of evidence. Authentic is a rule of evidence that states that the evidence must be original or verifiable as genuine and not altered or tampered with. Understandable is a rule of evidence that states that the evidence must be clear and comprehensible to the court or jury and not ambiguous or confusing. Reliable is a rule of evidence that states that the evidence must be consistent and trustworthy and not based on hearsay or speculation.Q29. A threat intelligence feed data file has been acquired and stored in the Documents folder of Attacker Machine-1 (File Name: Threatfeed.txt). You are a cybersecurity technician working for an ABC organization. Your organization has assigned you a task to analyze the data and submit a report on the threat landscape. Select the IP address linked with http://securityabc.s21sec.com.  5.9.200.200  5.9.200.150  5.9.110.120  5.9.188.148 5.9.188.148 is the IP address linked with http://securityabc.s21sec.com in the above scenario. A threat intelligence feed is a source of data that provides information about current or potential threats and attacks that can affect an organization’s network or system. A threat intelligence feed can include indicators of compromise (IoCs), such as IP addresses, domain names, URLs, hashes, etc., that can be used to detect or prevent malicious activities. To analyze the threat intelligence feed data file and determine the IP address linked with http://securityabc.s21sec.com, one has to follow these steps:Navigate to the Documents folder of Attacker-1 machine.Open Threatfeed.txt file with a text editor.Search for http://securityabc.s21sec.com in the file.Observe the IP address associated with the URL.The IP address associated with the URL is 5.9.188.148, which is the IP address linked with http://securityabc.s21sec.com.Q30. RAT has been setup in one of the machines connected to the network to steal the important Sensitive corporate docs located on Desktop of the server, further investigation revealed the IP address of the server 20.20.10.26. Initiate a remote connection using thief client and determine the number of files present in the folder.Hint: Thief folder is located at: Z:CCT-ToolsCCT Module 01 Information Security Threats and VulnerabilitiesRemote Access Trojans (RAT)Thief of Attacker Machine-1.  2  4  3  5 Q31. Ashton is working as a security specialist in SoftEight Tech. He was instructed by the management to strengthen the Internet access policy. For this purpose, he implemented a type of Internet access policy that forbids everything and imposes strict restrictions on all company computers, whether it is system or network usage.Identify the type of Internet access policy implemented by Ashton in the above scenario.  Paranoid policy  Prudent policy  Permissive policy  Promiscuous policy The correct answer is A, as it identifies the type of Internet access policy implemented by Ashton in the above scenario. An Internet access policy is a set of rules and guidelines that defines how an organization’s employees or members can use the Internet and what types of websites or services they can access. There are different types of Internet access policies, such as:Paranoid policy: This type of policy forbids everything and imposes strict restrictions on all company computers, whether it is system or network usage. This policy is suitable for organizations that deal with highly sensitive or classified information and have a high level of security and compliance requirements.Prudent policy: This type of policy allows some things and blocks others and imposes moderate restrictions on company computers, depending on the role and responsibility of the user. This policy is suitable for organizations that deal with confidential or proprietary information and have a medium level of security and compliance requirements.Permissive policy: This type of policy allows most things and blocks few and imposes minimal restrictions on company computers, as long as the user does not violate any laws or regulations. This policy is suitable for organizations that deal with public or general information and have a low level of security and compliance requirements.Promiscuous policy: This type of policy allows everything and blocks nothing and imposes no restrictions on company computers, regardless of the user’s role or responsibility. This policy is suitable for organizations that have no security or compliance requirements and trust their employees or members to use the Internet responsibly.In the above scenario, Ashton implemented a paranoid policy that forbids everything and imposes strict restrictions on all company computers, whether it is system or network usage. Option B is incorrect, as it does not identify the type of Internet access policy implemented by Ashton in the above scenario. A prudent policy allows some things and blocks others and imposes moderate restrictions on company computers, depending on the role and responsibility of the user. In the above scenario, Ashton did not implement a prudent policy, but a paranoid policy. Option C is incorrect, as it does not identify the type of Internet access policy implemented by Ashton in the above scenario. A permissive policy allows most things and blocks few and imposes minimal restrictions on company computers, as long as the user does not violate any laws or regulations. In the above scenario, Ashton did not implement a permissive policy, but a paranoid policy. Option D is incorrect, as it does not identify the type of Internet access policy implemented by Ashton in the above scenario. A promiscuous policy allows everything and blocks nothing and imposes no restrictions on company computers, regardless of the user’s role or responsibility. In the above scenario, Ashton did not implement a promiscuous policy, but a paranoid policy.Q32. Arabella, a forensic officer, documented all the evidence related to the case in a standard forensic investigation report template. She filled different sections of the report covering all the details of the crime along with the daily progress of the investigation process.In which of the following sections of the forensic investigation report did Arabella record the “nature of the claim and information provided to the officers”?  Investigation process  Investigation objectives  Evidence information  Evaluation and analysis process Investigation objectives is the section of the forensic investigation report where Arabella recorded the “nature of the claim and information provided to the officers” in the above scenario. A forensic investigation report is a document that summarizes the findings and conclusions of a forensic investigation. A forensic investigation report typically follows a standard template that contains different sections covering all the details of the crime and the investigation process. Investigation objectives is the section of the forensic investigation report that describes the purpose and scope of the investigation, the nature of the claim and information provided to the officers, and the questions or issues to be addressed by the investigation. Investigation process is the section of the forensic investigation report that describes the steps and methods followed by the investigators, such as evidence collection, preservation, analysis, etc. Evidence information is the section of the forensic investigation report that lists and describes the evidence obtained from various sources, such as devices, media, witnesses, etc. Evaluation and analysis process is the section of the forensic investigation report that explains how the evidence was evaluated and analyzed using various tools and techniques, such as software, hardware, etc.Q33. Karter, a security professional, deployed a honeypot on the organization’s network for luring attackers who attempt to breach the network. For this purpose, he configured a type of honeypot that simulates a real OS as well as applications and services of a target network. Furthermore, the honeypot deployed by Karter only responds to preconfigured commands.Identify the type of Honeypot deployed by Karter in the above scenario.  Low-interaction honeypot  Pure honeypot  Medium-interaction honeypot  High-interaction honeypot Q34. Martin, a network administrator at an organization, received breaching alerts for an application. He identified that a vulnerability in the application allowed attackers to enter malicious input. Martin evaluated the threat severity and extent of damage that could be caused by this vulnerability. He then escalated the issue to the security management team to determine appropriate mitigation strategies. In which of the following threat-modeling steps did Martin evaluate the severity level of the threat?  Identify vulnerabilities  Application overview  Risk and impact analysis  Decompose the application Risk and impact analysis is the threat-modeling step in which Martin evaluated the severity level of the threat in the above scenario. Threat modeling is a process that involves identifying, analyzing, and mitigating threats and risks to a system or network. Threat modeling can be used to improve the security and resilience of a system or network by applying various methods or techniques, such as STRIDE, DREAD, PASTA, etc. Threat modeling consists of various steps or phases that perform different tasks or roles. Risk and impact analysis is a threat-modeling step that involves assessing the likelihood and consequences of threats and risks to a system or network . Risk and impact analysis can be used to evaluate the severity level of threats and risks and prioritize them for mitigation . In the scenario, Martin received breaching alerts for an application. He identified that a vulnerability in the application allowed attackers to enter malicious input. Martin evaluated the threat severity and extent of damage that could be caused by this vulnerability. He then escalated the issue to the security management team to determine appropriate mitigation strategies. This means that he performed risk and impact analysis for this purpose. Identify vulnerabilities is a threat-modeling step that involves finding and documenting the weaknesses or flaws in a system or network that can be exploited by threats or risks . Application overview is a threat-modeling step that involves defining and understanding the scope, architecture, components, and functionality of a system or network . Decompose the application is a threat-modeling step that involves breaking down a system or network into smaller and simpler elements, such as data flows, processes, assets, etc.Q35. Stella purchased a smartwatch online using her debit card. After making payment for the product through the payment gateway, she received a transaction text message with a deducted and available balance from her bank.Identify the information security element that ensures that Stella’s transaction status is immediately reflected in her bank account in this scenario.  Non-repudiation  Integrity  Availability  Confidentiality Availability is the information security element that ensures that Stella’s transaction status is immediately reflected in her bank account in this scenario. Information security is the practice of protecting information and information systems from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction. Information security can be based on three fundamental principles: confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Confidentiality is the principle that ensures that information is accessible only to authorized parties and not disclosed to unauthorized parties. Integrity is the principle that ensures that information is accurate, complete, and consistent and not altered or corrupted by unauthorized parties. Availability is the principle that ensures that information and information systems are accessible and usable by authorized parties when needed. In the scenario, Stella purchased a smartwatch online using her debit card. After making payment for the product through the payment gateway, she received a transaction text message with a deducted and available balance from her bank. This means that her transaction status was immediately reflected in her bank account, which indicates that availability was ensured by her bank’s information system.Q36. Shawn, a forensic officer, was appointed to investigate a crime scene that had occurred at a coffee shop. As a part of investigation, Shawn collected the mobile device from the victim, which may contain potential evidence to identify the culprits.Which of the following points must Shawn follow while preserving the digital evidence? (Choose three.)  Never record the screen display of the device  Turn the device ON if it is OFF  Do not leave the device as it is if it is ON  Make sure that the device is charged Q37. Rhett, a security professional at an organization, was instructed to deploy an IDS solution on their corporate network to defend against evolving threats. For this purpose, Rhett selected an IDS solution that first creates models for possible intrusions and then compares these models with incoming events to make detection decisions.Identify the detection method employed by the IDS solution in the above scenario.  Not-use detection  Protocol anomaly detection  Anomaly detection  Signature recognition Anomaly detection is a type of IDS detection method that involves first creating models for possible intrusions and then comparing these models with incoming events to make a detection decision. It can detect unknown or zero-day attacks by looking for deviations from normal or expected behaviorQ38. Leo has walked to the nearest supermarket to purchase grocery. At the billing section, the billing executive scanned each product’s machine-readable tag against a readable machine that automatically reads the product details, displays the prices of the individual product on the computer, and calculates the sum of those scanned items. Upon completion of scanning all the products, Leo has to pay the bill.Identify the type of short-range wireless communication technology that the billing executive has used in the above scenario.  Radio-frequency identification (RFID)  Near-field communication (NFC)  QUIC  QR codes and barcodes Q39. In an organization, all the servers and database systems are guarded in a sealed room with a single entry point. The entrance is protected with a physical lock system that requires typing a sequence of numbers and letters by using a rotating dial that intermingles with several other rotating discs.Which of the following types of physical locks is used by the organization in the above scenario?  Digital locks  Combination locks  Mechanical locks  Electromagnetic locks Q40. Kevin, a professional hacker, wants to penetrate CyberTech Inc.’s network. He employed a technique, using which he encoded packets with Unicode characters. The company’s IDS cannot recognize the packet, but the target web server can decode them.What is the technique used by Kevin to evade the IDS system?  Desynchronization  Obfuscating  Session splicing  Urgency flag Obfuscating is the technique used by Kevin to evade the IDS system in the above scenario. Obfuscating is a technique that involves encoding or modifying packets or data with various methods or characters to make them unreadable or unrecognizable by an IDS (Intrusion Detection System). Obfuscating can be used to bypass or evade an IDS system that relies on signatures or patterns to detect malicious activities. Obfuscating can include encoding packets with Unicode characters, which are characters that can represent various languages and symbols. The IDS system cannot recognize the packet, but the target web server can decode them and execute them normally. Desynchronization is a technique that involves creating discrepancies or inconsistencies between the state of a connection as seen by an IDS system and the state of a connection as seen by the end hosts. Desynchronization can be used to bypass or evade an IDS system that relies on stateful inspection to track and analyze connections. Desynchronization can include sending packets with invalid sequence numbers, which are numbers that indicate the order of packets in a connection. Session splicing is a technique that involves splitting or dividing packets or data into smaller fragments or segments to make them harder to detect by an IDS system. Session splicing can be used to bypass or evade an IDS system that relies on packet size or content to detect malicious activities. Session splicing can include sending packets with small MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit) values, which are values that indicate the maximum size of packets that can be transmitted over a network. An urgency flag is a flag in the TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) header that indicates that the data in the packet is urgent and should be processed immediately by the receiver. An urgency flag is not a technique to evade an IDS system, but it can be used to trigger an IDS system to generate an alert or a response.Q41. Hayes, a security professional, was tasked with the implementation of security controls for an industrial network at the Purdue level 3.5 (IDMZ). Hayes verified all the possible attack vectors on the IDMZ level and deployed a security control that fortifies the IDMZ against cyber-attacks.Identify the security control implemented by Hayes in the above scenario.  Point-to-point communication  MAC authentication  Anti-DoS solution  Use of authorized RTU and PLC commands Q42. George, a security professional at an MNC, implemented an Internet access policy that allowed employees working from a remote location to access any site, download any application, and access any computer or network without any restrictions. Identify the type of Internet access policy implemented by George in this scenario.  Permissive policy  Paranoid policy  Prudent policy  Promiscuous policy Permissive policy is the type of Internet access policy implemented by George in this scenario. An Internet access policy is a policy that defines the rules and guidelines for accessing the Internet from a system or network. An Internet access policy can be based on various factors, such as security, productivity, bandwidth, etc. An Internet access policy can have different types based on its level of restriction or control. A permissive policy is a type of Internet access policy that allows users to access any site, download any application, and access any computer or network without any restrictions. A permissive policy can be used to provide maximum flexibility and freedom to users, but it can also pose significant security risks and challenges. In the scenario, George implemented an Internet access policy that allowed employees working from a remote location to access any site, download any application, and access any computer or network without any restrictions. This means that he implemented a permissive policy for those employees. A paranoid policy is a type of Internet access policy that blocks or denies all Internet access by default and only allows specific sites, applications, or computers that are explicitly authorized. A prudent policy is a type of Internet access policy that allows most Internet access but blocks or restricts some sites, applications, or computers that are deemed inappropriate, malicious, or unnecessary. A promiscuous policy is not a type of Internet access policy, but a term that describes a network mode that allows a network interface card (NIC) to capture all packets on a network segment, regardless of their destination address.Q43. Myles, a security professional at an organization, provided laptops for all the employees to carry out the business processes from remote locations. While installing necessary applications required for the business, Myles has also installed antivirus software on each laptop following the company’s policy to detect and protect the machines from external malicious events over the Internet.Identify the PCI-DSS requirement followed by Myles in the above scenario.  PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.2  PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.5  PCI-DSS requirement no 5.1  PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.1 The correct answer is C, as it identifies the PCI-DSS requirement followed by Myles in the above scenario. PCI-DSS is a set of standards that aims to protect cardholder data and ensure secure payment transactions. PCI-DSS has 12 requirements that cover various aspects of security such as network configuration, data encryption, access control, vulnerability management, monitoring, and testing. PCI-DSS requirement no 5.1 states that “Protect all systems against malware and regularly update anti-virus software or programs”. In the above scenario, Myles followed this requirement by installing antivirus software on each laptop to detect and protect the machines from external malicious events over the Internet. Option A is incorrect, as it does not identify the PCI-DSS requirement followed by Myles in the above scenario. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.2 states that “Do not allow unauthorized outbound traffic from the cardholder data environment to the Internet”. In the above scenario, Myles did not follow this requirement, as there was no mention of outbound traffic or cardholder data environment. Option B is incorrect, as it does not identify the PCI-DSS requirement followed by Myles in the above scenario. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.5 states that “Restrict inbound and outbound traffic to that which is necessary for the cardholder data environment”. In the above scenario, Myles did not follow this requirement, as there was no mention of inbound or outbound traffic or cardholder data environment. Option D is incorrect, as it does not identify the PCI-DSS requirement followed by Myles in the above scenario. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.1 states that “Implement a firewall configuration that restricts connections between publicly accessible servers and any system component storing cardholder data”. In the above scenario, Myles did not follow this requirement, as there was no mention of firewall configuration or publicly accessible servers or system components storing cardholder data.Q44. A software company is developing a new software product by following the best practices for secure application development. Dawson, a software analyst, is checking the performance of the application on the client’s network to determine whether end users are facing any issues in accessing the application.Which of the following tiers of a secure application development lifecycle involves checking the performance of the application?  Development  Testing  Quality assurance (QA)  Staging The testing tier of a secure application development lifecycle involves checking the performance of the application on the client’s network to determine whether end users are facing any issues in accessing the application. Testing is a crucial phase of software development that ensures the quality, functionality, reliability, and security of the application. Testing can be done manually or automatically using various tools and techniques, such as unit testing, integration testing, system testing, regression testing, performance testing, usability testing, security testing, and acceptance testingQ45. An loT device placed in a hospital for safety measures has sent an alert to the server. The network traffic has been captured and stored in the Documents folder of the “Attacker Machine-1”. Analyze the loTdeviceTraffic.pcapng file and identify the command the loT device sent over the network. (Practical Question)  Tempe_Low  Low_Tem p e  High_Tcmpe  Temp_High The loT device sent the command Temp_High over the network, which indicates that the temperature in the hospital was above the threshold level. This can be verified by analyzing the loTdeviceTraffic.pcapng file using a network protocol analyzer tool such as Wireshark4. The command Temp_High can be seen in the data field of the UDP packet sent from the loT device (192.168.0.10) to the server (192.168.0.1) at 12:00:03. The screenshot below shows the packet details5: Reference: Wireshark User’s Guide, [loTdeviceTraffic.pcapng] Loading … 212-82 Exam Questions Get Updated [2023] with Correct Answers: https://www.braindumpsit.com/212-82_real-exam.html --------------------------------------------------- Images: https://blog.braindumpsit.com/wp-content/plugins/watu/loading.gif https://blog.braindumpsit.com/wp-content/plugins/watu/loading.gif --------------------------------------------------- --------------------------------------------------- Post date: 2023-12-20 13:10:41 Post date GMT: 2023-12-20 13:10:41 Post modified date: 2023-12-20 13:10:41 Post modified date GMT: 2023-12-20 13:10:41